falah wrote on Oct 12
th, 2011 at 5:41pm:
Yadda you are a hypocrite. Your own Bible sanctions slave owners having intercourse with their slavegirls.
You only follow your own desires. You follow the Bible when it suits you, then you disown it when it does not.
Did not Prophet Abraham have child through the slavewoman Hagar?
also the Bible says:
17 Then Abraham prayed to God, and God healed Abimelech, his wife and his slave girls so they could have children again
Genesis 20
7 “When a man sells his daughter
as a slave, she will not be freed at the end of six years as the men are.
8 If she does not satisfy
her owner, he must allow her to be bought back again. But he is not allowed to sell her to foreigners, since he is the one who broke the contract with her.
Exodus 21
falah,
The societal customs were different then.
And, you misrepresent those societal customs.Exodus 21:7
And if a man sell his daughter to be a
maidservant, she shall not go out as the menservants do.
8 If she please not her master,
who hath betrothed her to himself,
then shall he let her be redeemed: to sell her unto a strange nation he shall have no power, seeing he hath dealt deceitfully with her.
A man could sell his daughter into the family of another man, to be a bond-servant,
as a prospective wife, to that man [or his son].
But the daughter was betrothed, she was not a sex slave [
as you falsely portray], she was not even a slave.
She was a temporary maidservant to his family,
a bond-servant to his family.
In those times, any man [if he had come upon hard times, or if he was destitute]
could 'sell' himself, to be a bond-servant to another, for a [an agreed] set term of years.
Dictionary;
betroth = = formally engaged to be married.
This was an honourable 'arrangement' between two families,
prior to a formal marriage, of the man and woman.
She [the daughter] was never a sex slave, to her betrothed [prospective] husband.
This daughter would remain 'chaste' [sexually 'off limits'], until she was formally married.
That daughter was not used as a sex slave,
in the way moslems justify, 'using' captive women as sex slaves TODAY.....
Pakistan: 12 year-old Christian gang raped for eight months, forcibly converted to Islam, "married" to her Muslim attacker
Will the Islamophobia never end? "Pakistan:
A 12 year-old Christian is gang raped for eight months, forcibly converted and
then 'married' to her Muslim attacker,"
Google;
christian girl raped forced conversion to islam
"News stories, you will NOT see reported on ABC TV"
http://www.ozpolitic.com/forum/YaBB.pl?num=1315488627/100#100+++
ISLAM is a corrupt and corrupting philosophy.
Mohammed wrote ISLAMIC scripture himself,
and used it as a means, to 'sanctify' his own sexual lusts.i.e.
"Allah allows this to me, Mohammed."
And today, moslems imitate Mohammed, and have 'religiously' justified THEIR OWN fornication, and rape of women.
And in that [being fornicators, and rapists], moslems are a witness against themselves.
Mohammed claimed that his carnal lust, was sanctioned [made 'holy'] by Allah himself.
"O Prophet! Why holdest thou to be forbidden
that which Allah has made lawful to thee? Thou seekest to please thy consorts. But Allah is Oft-Forgiving, Most Merciful."
Koran 66.1
All moslems today, also claim that they can rape any captive woman.
And moslems claim that such extramarital sex [rape of captive non-moslem women] is 'lawful' to them.
Moslems claim that ISLAM
conveniently sanctifies their own adultery and fornication -
SO ITS OK.
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