rabbitoh07 wrote on Aug 12
th, 2012 at 11:10am:
Yes - I am absolutely positive that a state gay marriage law is not in conflict with the federal law that strictly specifies that marriage is between a man and a woman.
Here is how the Marriage Act defines marriage:
MARRIAGE ACT 1961 - SECT 5
Interpretation
(1) In this Act, unless the contrary intention appears:
'marriage" means the union of a man and a woman to the exclusion of all others, voluntarily entered into for life.
That is the definition for THAT Act. The Tas and SA Acts apply to marriages which do not meet that definition. Hence there is no conflict with the Federal Act and they are free to legislate whatever they like.
You really should be more discerning when you throw the word "idiot" about
I'm standing by my assertion of your intellectual status; you should have read ALL my posts from the beginning.
If you did, you would have found this little snippet of information too.
See under the constitution the feds have the absolute right to legislate marriage and they can and in some cases do, hand over some of that power to the states. But not in the case of homo marriages.
Today's lesson in law; No state can over ride the constitution, the feds legislate marriage and the states will follow the letter and intent of that legislation.
Here I'll post it again just for you.
COMMONWEALTH OF AUSTRALIA CONSTITUTION ACT - SECT 51
Legislative powers of the Parliament [see Notes 10 and 11]
The Parliament shall, subject to this Constitution, have power to make laws for the peace, order, and good government of the Commonwealth with respect to:
(xxi) marriage;
http://www.austlii.edu.au/au/legis/cth/consol_act/coaca430/s51.html