rabbitoh07 wrote on Aug 12
th, 2012 at 1:33pm:
BigOl64 wrote on Aug 12
th, 2012 at 12:17pm:
rabbitoh07 wrote on Aug 12
th, 2012 at 12:04pm:
You were the one that used the term "absolute" power.
The Constitution uses the term "exclusive" power. And exclusive powers are listed in s52.
The power to legislate on marriage is NOT and exclusive power listed in s52.
The Commonweath has power to legislate over marriage. It does not have EXCLUSIVE power to do that. Hence a State may make any legislation it wishes so long as it is not inconsistent under s109.
A gay marriage law is clearly not inconsistent with the Marriage Act as the Marriage Act cleary and unambiguously only applies to hetrosexual unions.
I suggest you learn a little about the history of our Constitution and how it treats powers of the States and Commonwealth before you get too carried away insulting people. OK?
At last you are right about something; I did not use the term "exclusive power"; kudos to you.
Only a moron would argue that a gay marriage law by the states is not inconsistent with the federal marriage act amendment of 2004 with specifically defines marriage being between a man and a woman.
While I'm learning the intricacies of the constitution, i suggest you get going on your primary school comprehension skills.
No - you didn't use the term "exclusive power". You just made things up and said "absolute power". Why did you make that up? Were you being deliberately dishonest? Or are you just a bit dim?
But it is good to see you are slowly grasping some concepts here:
the federal marriage act amendment of 2004 with specifically defines marriage being between a man and a woman. Exactly right! It SPECIFICALLY defines marriage being between a man and a woman for the purposes of that Act
Hence - a marriage between a same sex couple is not valid under that act.
But if a State parliament legislates to allow same sex marriage - then that is not inconsistent with the Marriage Act because the federal marriage act amendment of 2004 specifically defines marriage being between a man and a woman.
For your argument to make any sense, what you need to show us is why you think that a State Parliaments power's for legislating with respect to marriage has been dissolved (provided there is no inconsistency with s109 of the Constitution)
Unless you are trying to argue that a marriage between a man and a woman is
exactly the same thing as a marriage between a man and a man. If it is - I suggest you may be doing it wrong. If it isn't - why on earth did Howard make the amendment in the first place?
You're a dill.
Your total inability to grasp even the most basic of concepts is exasperating to say the least.
1. The constitution gives the FEDERAL government power to legislate ALL marriage. S51
2. The constitution gives the FEDERAL government precedence over state legislation. s 109
3. The federal marriage act 2004 define marriage as between a man and a woman.
4. The state CANNOT redefine marriage in contravention of the federal act
If the FEDERAL government repeals or amends the amendment, then and ONLY then can the state change their acts to include gay marriage.
This conversation is FVCKEN OVER, your are as moronic and infantile as prevailing/ greens_win and corpulent whitey and as such you will be treated withe same contempt as they are.