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Executing prisoners of war (Read 101777 times)
True Colours
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Re: On Islamic historical sourcing
Reply #180 - Nov 13th, 2013 at 4:18pm
 
polite_gandalf wrote on Nov 13th, 2013 at 2:26pm:
Baron tried very very hard, but literally the only thing he had was a reference to Aisha possessing dolls..


Dolls? Why didn't she just turn on the telly, I know I would.
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Re: On Islamic historical sourcing
Reply #181 - Nov 13th, 2013 at 5:07pm
 
polite_gandalf wrote on Nov 13th, 2013 at 2:26pm:
I can tell you, if it really is a fact that Aisha was prepubescent at the time of consummation then I will happily renounce islam and declare Muhammad a filthy pedophile.

I have gone over this enough times already, there is absolutely no evidence whatsoever that she was pre-pubescent at the time of consummation. Baron tried very very hard, but literally the only thing he had was a reference to Aisha possessing dolls, and the faulty logic that she must have been prepubescent because post-pubescent girls are not allowed to play with dolls.
This "evidence" compared to an actual sahih hadith that has Aisha herself stating that she was post-pubescent even before the migration

He made a universal ruling on rape -


All the ex muslims at the councilofexmuslims.com say Mo was Pedo,of course you will not try your bullshit there because people will call bullshit. Roll Eyes

There is lots of evidence Aisha was prepubescent when a dirty old mo porked her, do you think anyone will believe you or believe what is written in your own Islamic texts?

This verse says she had not reached puberty and it was long after she saw her parents who were the first to convert to Islam-
Quote:
So you may deduce from this event how a little girl (who has not reached the age of puberty)
www.sunnah.com/bukhari/67/169


Quote:
The playing with dolls and similar images is forbidden,but it was allowed for Aisha,as she was a little girl,not yet reached the age of puberty
www.sunnah.com/bukhari/78/157


So when did Aisha start wearing a veil?
Quote:
Narrated Aisha-
Allah does not accept the prayer of a woman who has reached puberty unless she wears a veil
www.sunnah.com/abudawud/2/251


All sahih hadeeth saying she had not reached puberty!

All you have is Aisha saying- I had seen my parents following Islam since i attained the age of puberty.
Her parents were the first converts to Islam, she married Mo at age 6 (sahih hadeeth) ,Do you expect everyone to believe Mo was not a pedo because his 6 year old wife had reached puberty when other verses from your texts say she had not reached puberty?

Please cite this ruling on rape from Mo.
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polite_gandalf
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Re: On Islamic historical sourcing
Reply #182 - Nov 13th, 2013 at 5:22pm
 
Thats quite pathetic Baron. You realise your argument boils down to saying "various hadeeth refer to Aisha being prepubescent at some undisclosed time and we have no idea whether it was before or after her marriage had been consummated"?

Its quite comical actually, and I have great difficulty believing that even you would run this with a straight face.

Simple question: is there any reference anywhere in these hadeeth to the time frame - specifically in relation to when her marriage was consummated? Anything at all??

As far as I know there is only one authentic hadith (and at least one less authentic hadith) that puts any sort of timeframe of her puberty in relation to when her marriage was consummated, and that is the one she says she went through puberty while she was still living with her parents, which we know was before the hijra and before moving in with The Prophet.
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Outlawing the enemy's uniform - hijab, islamic beard - is not depriving one's own people of their freedoms.
 
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Re: On Islamic historical sourcing
Reply #183 - Nov 13th, 2013 at 5:27pm
 
Islam - splitting hairs through the centuries.

Because it is a performative religion (you are Muslim by doing stuff a certain way), rather than a speculative one (it's all about your attitude to stuff), Islam will split hairs about dolls and pubic hair removal and how far you are allowed to get up a goat. Every aspect of performative action is regulated and never mind the rhyme or reason.

Judaism has loads of this stuff (this is why Islam is a parody of Judaism) but it also has even more speculative aspects.  Christianity is Judaism without the performative straight-jacket.

"The law (Sabbath) is made for man, not man for the law (Sabbath)" - that's Christianity. That's Christianity's departure from Judaism and Islam.

Because Judaism has speculative aspects (which Christianity inherited), Jews can be  and are interpretive and speculative. Not so Muslims.  Mohammed is the final speculative word. There is no  further interpretation and speculation. There is no re-interpretation of the final word.

It is inconceivable in Islam to say anything like "sharia is made for man, not man for sharia".  Perform, don't speculate. Don't think, do it our way. Submit.
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Re: On Islamic historical sourcing
Reply #184 - Nov 13th, 2013 at 11:56pm
 
Baronvonrort wrote on Nov 13th, 2013 at 5:07pm:
Quote:
So you may deduce from this event how a little girl (who has not reached the age of puberty)
www.sunnah.com/bukhari/67/169


These words:  "who has not reached the age of puberty" do not appear in the original Arabic. They have just been added in by some translator.

The Arabic word used is "jaariyah" which simply means female youth and does not really indicate pre-pubescence or otherwise. The Arabs used to consider anyone under the age of 40 to be a youth so you can't read too much into it. The Arabs in those times used to refer to their middle-aged female slaves as "jaariyah".




Baronvonrort wrote on Nov 13th, 2013 at 5:07pm:
Quote:
The playing with dolls and similar images is forbidden,but it was allowed for Aisha,as she was a little girl,not yet reached the age of puberty
www.sunnah.com/bukhari/78/157


These words regarding puberty do not appear in the original Arabic, but have been added in English by some translator which is why they appear in brackets.

Not only does the original wording not mention puberty, but it does not mention whether Aaishah was even married at that point.



Baronvonrort wrote on Nov 13th, 2013 at 5:07pm:
So when did Aisha start wearing a veil?
Quote:
Narrated Aisha-
Allah does not accept the prayer of a woman who has reached puberty unless she wears a veil
www.sunnah.com/abudawud/2/251


Nope. This hadeeth does not mention being married or not reaching puberty either.

You really seem to grasping at straws. Why your desperation to manufacture this?


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« Last Edit: Nov 14th, 2013 at 12:04am by True Colours »  
 
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Re: On Islamic historical sourcing
Reply #185 - Nov 14th, 2013 at 2:00pm
 
Quote:
Have you ever met a muslim man who doesn't have a beard?


Take a look back at the context of the original claim made by Brian. It is obviously nothing today with trivial matters such as whether to grow a beard. You seem to flip conveniently between the two yourself.

Quote:
I have gone over this enough times already, there is absolutely no evidence whatsoever that she was pre-pubescent at the time of consummation.


I presented some a few days ago in the child brides thread. I have reposted it several times. So far you have not even responded to it.

Quote:
Your question itself was the distortion. "How does islam justify something immoral" - was the essense of your question


No Gandalf. The essence of the question was how the "context" can make it morally appropriate to have sex with children. I was after details. I still am. How do you actually "socialise" a child to make a morally appropriate child bride?

Quote:
Or to quote a well used politician answer - I reject the premise of your question.


You invented a premise to avoid answering the question. You deflected.

Quote:
He made a universal ruling on rape - all rape, as discussed at length before. Spousal rape is completely contrary to his emphasis on marriage being about mutual love and respect.


But not punishable in an way?

Quote:
Muhammad's response was to tell the men who committed the beatings "you are not the best among us" or words to that effect. So please don't tell such blatant untruths.


Roll Eyes

I am sure that eased their wives' pain.

Quote:
Thats quite pathetic Baron. You realise your argument boils down to saying "various hadeeth refer to Aisha being prepubescent at some undisclosed time and we have no idea whether it was before or after her marriage had been consummated"?


It is quite clear from the context what was going on. That is why you refused to respond when I posted it in the child brides thread.
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Re: On Islamic historical sourcing
Reply #186 - Nov 14th, 2013 at 2:35pm
 
freediver wrote on Nov 14th, 2013 at 2:00pm:
Take a look back at the context of the original claim made by Brian. It is obviously nothing today with trivial matters such as whether to grow a beard. You seem to flip conveniently between the two yourself.


Well I'm trying to think of specific examples. Brian didn't provide any. Can you think of any? I seem to be the only one trying to make sense of this.

Muhammad's "examples" are under a special category called "sunna". Thats what I interpret from what you and Brian term "standards". Its not my choice of term, so I can only try and interpret what you mean. After all, what else is there besides the "standards" that are set out in the examples in the hadeeth?

freediver wrote on Nov 14th, 2013 at 2:00pm:
I presented some a few days ago in the child brides thread. I have reposted it several times. So far you have not even responded to it.


I don't recall it. Its fairly safe to say though that it doesn't place her pre-pubescency specifically in the timeframe after her consummation, am I right? Is it like Baron's "evidence" of simply citing a hadith that she was prepubescent at some completely unknown point in time?

freediver wrote on Nov 14th, 2013 at 2:00pm:
No Gandalf. The essence of the question was how the "context" can make it morally appropriate to have sex with children. I was after details.


Perhaps you missed it:

Quote:
I made it clear it was something only for a particular time and place - and that time was a long time ago. Since then Women receive education, better health care, they grow up in relative peace and prosperity etc. You make it sound as if it is something that is worth pursuing, I never said that. In fact I made it clear that going back to that would be massively retrograde. Girls were "conditioned", if you like, to grow up very fast because life was much shorter, far more volatile and generally sucked in just about every measure compared to today. And this was not an environment of Muhammad's or islam's making - it was the way of the world - everywhere. What Muhammad did do was try and make the best of a sh!tty situation- raising the status of women, having a *VERY* strong emphasis on education (in fact he deemed it compulsory for women to be educated), and severely curbed the ill-treatment of women. Aisha embodied that "new way" for women - becoming well educated and a strong, wise and very much reverred leader of her society.

http://www.ozpolitic.com/forum/YaBB.pl?num=1374112476/176#176

freediver wrote on Nov 14th, 2013 at 2:00pm:
But not punishable in an way?


The hadith that referenced the ruling was specifically about the punishment.

freediver wrote on Nov 14th, 2013 at 2:00pm:
I am sure that eased their wives' pain.


Its irrelevant. You made the claim that he said nothing about it, I pointed out that he clearly disapproved of it. Thus you are clearly fabricating the hadith.

freediver wrote on Nov 14th, 2013 at 2:00pm:
It is quite clear from the context what was going on. That is why you refused to respond when I posted it in the child brides thread.


I see, so it is the same "evidence" Baron posted Grin

What is the context then FD? Both hadith clearly indicate that she was married at the time - but we already knew she was prepubescent at the time of marriage. The question is was it after the 3 years Muhammad waited to consummate the wedding? You and Baron seem very sure that it was. Prey tell, where is the proof from these hadeeth that it was a time after consummation? Actual evidence please.
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A resident Islam critic who claims to represent western values said:
Quote:
Outlawing the enemy's uniform - hijab, islamic beard - is not depriving one's own people of their freedoms.
 
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Baronvonrort
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Re: On Islamic historical sourcing
Reply #187 - Nov 14th, 2013 at 4:20pm
 
True Colours wrote on Nov 13th, 2013 at 11:56pm:
Baronvonrort wrote on Nov 13th, 2013 at 5:07pm:
Quote:
So you may deduce from this event how a little girl (who has not reached the age of puberty)
www.sunnah.com/bukhari/67/169


These words:  "who has not reached the age of puberty" do not appear in the original Arabic. They have just been added in by some translator.

The Arabic word used is "jaariyah" which simply means female youth and does not really indicate pre-pubescence or otherwise. The Arabs used to consider anyone under the age of 40 to be a youth so you can't read too much into it. The Arabs in those times used to refer to their middle-aged female slaves as "jaariyah".




Baronvonrort wrote on Nov 13th, 2013 at 5:07pm:
Quote:
The playing with dolls and similar images is forbidden,but it was allowed for Aisha,as she was a little girl,not yet reached the age of puberty
www.sunnah.com/bukhari/78/157


These words regarding puberty do not appear in the original Arabic, but have been added in English by some translator which is why they appear in brackets.

Not only does the original wording not mention puberty, but it does not mention whether Aaishah was even married at that point.



Baronvonrort wrote on Nov 13th, 2013 at 5:07pm:
So when did Aisha start wearing a veil?
Quote:
Narrated Aisha-
Allah does not accept the prayer of a woman who has reached puberty unless she wears a veil
www.sunnah.com/abudawud/2/251


Nope. This hadeeth does not mention being married or not reaching puberty either.




Are you saying in 4:34 when it says beat them (lightly) that lightly does not appear in the Arabic text?

Do you agree that (lightly) to describe wife bashing in 4:34 was added by the english translator?

Your own islamic websites contradict Gandalf's claim that Aisha had reached puberty on the evidence of 1 hadith.


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Re: On Islamic historical sourcing
Reply #188 - Nov 14th, 2013 at 4:43pm
 
polite_gandalf wrote on Nov 14th, 2013 at 2:35pm:
Is it like Baron's "evidence" of simply citing a hadith that she was prepubescent at some completely unknown point in time?

I see, so it is the same "evidence" Baron posted

Both hadith clearly indicate that she was married at the time - but we already knew she was prepubescent at the time of marriage.


You are the one using this hadith as evidence to when Aisha reached puberty-
Quote:
Narrated Aisha-
I had seen my parents following Islam since i attained the age of puberty.
www.sunnah.com/bukhari/8/124

Her father Abu Bakr was one of the first if not the first convert to Islam, he was a neighbor to Mohammad and Khadija.
Aisha was 6 when she married Mohammad, she must have sen her parents following Islam before she married that dirty old pedo,you have pathetically tried to argue she reached puberty before age 6.

Abu Bakr was reluctant to let his 6 year old daughter marry Mo,Mo said his imaginary friend in the sky called Allah made it lawful for him to marry this child.
Quote:
The profit asked Abu Bakr for Aisha's hand in marriage,Abu Bakr said "But i am your brother" the profit pedo said "You are my brother in Allah's religion and his book,but Aisha is lawful for me to marry
www.sunnah.com/bukhari/67/19



Aisha got her first menses on the journey to the very first Hajj at around 15 years of age,she was prepubescent at age 9 when dirty old man had sex with her.

Why did Aisha have no children with Mohammad,why did his other wives produce so few children, was Mohammad impotent in his final years?


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Leftists and the Ayatollahs have a lot in common when it comes to criticism of Islam, they don't tolerate it.
 
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Re: On Islamic historical sourcing
Reply #189 - Nov 14th, 2013 at 5:03pm
 
Baronvonrort wrote on Nov 14th, 2013 at 4:43pm:
Aisha got her first menses on the journey to the very first Hajj at around 15 years of age


Source please.
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A resident Islam critic who claims to represent western values said:
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Outlawing the enemy's uniform - hijab, islamic beard - is not depriving one's own people of their freedoms.
 
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Re: On Islamic historical sourcing
Reply #190 - Nov 19th, 2013 at 12:18pm
 
Just want to go back on a point FD made earlier that he never did justify.

Talking about the treaty Muhammad's city-state of Medina had with the jewish tribes that lived there he states:

Quote:
It was a loose agreement of mutual support that one by one, Muhammed had renegged on. He laid siege to the entire tribe for 25 days.


I asked for clarification on this "renegging" of the treaty, to which FD answered:

Quote:
The wikipedia article I keep quoting from mentions that there was an agreement, but states that it is unknown whether it compelled them to fight, or merely not attack each other.


Picking up on his stated admission that the terms of the agreement were "unknown", I pointed out that:

Quote:
You don't even know the terms of the treaty, but you are perfectly happy to claim with certainty that Muhammad broke them.


In desperation, FD attempts sarcasm in an attempt to deflect this glaring hole in his argument, but only digs himself in deeper:

Quote:
I apologise. It was silly of me to assume that Muhammed wrote a treaty that excluded executing 700 POWs, and exiling the other two tribes.


I then spelled out the obvious, to which he (probably wisely) stopped responding:

Quote:
No. Apologise and feel silly for thinking that Muhammad was somehow bound by a treaty that had already been broken - and not by him.


Naturally like all of FDs refuted claims it got lost in the pages and pages of "noise" of obfuscation and endless nitpicking.

But I feel its worth reiterating some key points that are rather fundamental to the overall debate every now and then. Here FD makes a rather key claim that Muhammad "one by one" broke the terms of the treaty - but then spectacularly fails to substantiate this with anything at all - and in the end quietly left it alone.

Lets go into more detail:

1. asked to clarify the claim that Muhammad "renegged" the agreements with the jews, FD responds by referencing a wiki article that states it is "unknown" whether the agreements compelled the members to actively fight for each other (in the event of an external attack), or merely not attack each other.

- firstly, as already pointed out, FD is merely highlighting the fact that the terms of the agreements are unknown, thus such a definite statement as Muhammad "renegged" on them "one by one" is obviously absurd.

- Secondly, in regards to the wiki article FD is referring to, there is dispute regarding whether the Banu Qurayza were obliged to actively support the muslims, or merely remain neutral. But what is *NOT* in dispute (according to the article) is that the Banu Qurayza were not to either attack or conspire with the muslim's enemies. (An obvious point, but anyway). The article makes it very clear that there is no dispute on this point. And it is a *FACT*, that FD never even bothered to argue against, that the Banu Qurayza conspired with Muhammad's enemies while they were besieging the muslims.

2. After being so embarassingly off the mark with his wiki reference, FD then resorts to sarcasm, making the point that of course any genuine treaty wouldn't have include beheading people and/or driving them out. Therefore, by committing these acts, its Muhammad who broke it.

So after establishing that the jews had *ALREADY* broken the agreements by negotiating with a hostile enemy (again, FD never tries to dispute), it is somehow Muhammad who really reneged on them for acting against these traitors! Dare I make the painfully obvious point? - that once an agreement is broken, the agreement is broken - and people typically get punished for committing treason. Duh!


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A resident Islam critic who claims to represent western values said:
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Outlawing the enemy's uniform - hijab, islamic beard - is not depriving one's own people of their freedoms.
 
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Re: On Islamic historical sourcing
Reply #191 - Nov 19th, 2013 at 12:21pm
 
oh yeah, since I'm "following up" on ridiculous claims, Baron..

polite_gandalf wrote on Nov 14th, 2013 at 5:03pm:
Baronvonrort wrote on Nov 14th, 2013 at 4:43pm:
Aisha got her first menses on the journey to the very first Hajj at around 15 years of age


Source please.


Anything yet? Anything at all??
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A resident Islam critic who claims to represent western values said:
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Outlawing the enemy's uniform - hijab, islamic beard - is not depriving one's own people of their freedoms.
 
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Re: On Islamic historical sourcing
Reply #192 - Dec 7th, 2013 at 9:15pm
 
Quote:
The hadith that referenced the ruling was specifically about the punishment.


For spousal rape? Islam obviously treats spousal rape differently and it is deceptive of you to claim any different. The concept of consent does not even make sense in the context of concubinage. Last time you made this claim you were still under the delusion that Muhammed did not have sex with his concubines.

Quote:
But I feel its worth reiterating some key points that are rather fundamental to the overall debate every now and then. Here FD makes a rather key claim that Muhammad "one by one" broke the terms of the treaty - but then spectacularly fails to substantiate this with anything at all - and in the end quietly left it alone.


The detail is well known. He expelled two of the tribes on the weakest of pretexts and slaughtered the third.

Quote:
firstly, as already pointed out, FD is merely highlighting the fact that the terms of the agreements are unknown, thus such a definite statement as Muhammad "renegged" on them "one by one" is obviously absur


I do not have to know the details of the agreement to know that powerful tribes would not surrender themselves to an agreement that would see them expelled over comparitively minor or imaginary crimes.

Quote:
So after establishing that the jews had *ALREADY* broken the agreements by negotiating with a hostile enemy (again, FD never tries to dispute), it is somehow Muhammad who really reneged on them for acting against these traitors!


You are missing the point Gandalf. Muhammed had already renegged on the agreement and booted out two other Jewish tribes. He obviously had no intention at all of acting honestly and it is absurd for Muslims to expect that the Banu Qurayza would stick to that agreement and support a man who was obviously in the process of expelling anyone who did not bow down to him.
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Re: On Islamic historical sourcing
Reply #193 - Feb 1st, 2014 at 12:45pm
 
polite_gandalf wrote on Feb 1st, 2014 at 10:04am:
freediver wrote on Feb 1st, 2014 at 8:46am:
yet you backpedal when it comes to the examples set by Muhammed himself.


No I don't. I have no problem with executing traitors who conspired to anhialate the muslim nation. I think thats a great example to follow. I just refuse to acknowledge this example as a blanket "command" for all muslims to kill all POWs taken in war - when the Quran commands the exact opposite. How unreasonable of me.  Roll Eyes


Gandalf, would you mind clarifying under what circumstances you would "have no problem" with executing 800 prisoners captured in war (I know you don't label to label them POWs) and taking their wives as sex slaves?
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Re: On Islamic historical sourcing
Reply #194 - Feb 1st, 2014 at 3:28pm
 
freediver wrote on Feb 1st, 2014 at 12:45pm:
I know you don't label to label them POWs


Correct. Thats all that needs to be said.
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A resident Islam critic who claims to represent western values said:
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Outlawing the enemy's uniform - hijab, islamic beard - is not depriving one's own people of their freedoms.
 
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