freediver wrote on Oct 27
th, 2013 at 10:29am:
That's because you keep forgetting what my argument is.
I confess it is difficult to keep track of an argument that goes from saying the British empire "dissolved" 100 years before WWII, to saying actually, it was in a state of transition/last throws during that time - even though in reality, British imperialism was being ramped up to its greatest intensity ever, and is popularly known as the "British Imperial Century".
freediver wrote on Oct 27
th, 2013 at 10:29am:
Traditional militant expansionism would have seen Britain invade it's European neighbours, which is where all the money really was. The reason they did not is because it was the European intellectual elite who were driving the debate over free trade vs imperialism.
Why is it so difficult to comprehend the very simple concept that free trade and imperialism goes hand in hand? What we saw in Europe at the time was a mutually beneficial arrangement whereby they colluded with each other in conquering and exploiting the vast territories in the new worlds, and shared the spoils with each other via free trade in Europe. We saw this collusion in practice when virtually all the imperial powers joined forces to crush the Chines boxer rebellion - after they dared to assert their own economic independence.
freediver wrote on Oct 27
th, 2013 at 10:29am:
When the time did come, the British yielded the territories comparatively willingly.
Another point you stubbornly refuse to look at the actual historical evidence. When did Britain yield its territory? Apart from the traditional colonies - which were incorporated into the European market anyway - I can think of not a single British holding that was relinquished until the free market/capitalist system that fostered its acquisition and maintenance, effectively collapsed as a result of the free trade nations turning on each other. Or in other words, what territories of the British empire were yielded before WWI? What examples are there of Britain yielding territory of their empire primarily as a result of willingly transitioning to a free trade arrangement within a thriving capitalist system - as opposed to yielding them as a result of a near collapse of their prosperity in the capitalist system as a result of WWI and WWII? I can think of none. The reality is that the only thing that Britain did with its empire while it thrived within the capitalist system, was to aggressively expand it, and assert more and more control over the territory it already held - ie India, which during the 19th century, went from a corporate entity, to British sovereign territory.
freediver wrote on Oct 27
th, 2013 at 10:29am:
You cite a few examples of violent conflict, but in order to make anything of it you must first reject the far harsher reality of what traditional imperialism would have meant.
Like I keep saying - saying that British imperialism was declining because it was quite successful at acquiring new territory with remarkably little military or economic cost to itself - is not an argument. It is an argument for saying Britain was remarkably successful at acquiring an empire at very little military and economic cost. Thats not to say the expansion wasn't violent. Yet when you pit rifles against spears - as was the case in most of their conquest of Africa - the results are going to be somewhat lobsided. The British were incredibly violent in conquering independent economic movements in India, Africa and China - violence that was many times the scale of the American war of independence, as already pointed out. Put simply, they had the best of both worlds - imperially speaking - they could conquer whatever they wanted almost at will, and conceded virtually no economic or political concessions to the natives - at minimal cost to their own economy and military forces.
In short, British imperialism was remarkably efficient - but it was still imperialism.