I told you the post would be continued but you didn't wait. The resurrection of the dead and Second Coming of Christ come at the end of what Daniel described as the "time of the end". Now let's look at how
Hebrew scholars interpret that
Hebrew idiom:
Daniel 12:7 And I heard the man clad in linen, who was above the waters of the river, and he raised his right hand and his left hand to the heavens, and he swore by the Life of the world, that
in the time of [two] times and a half, and when they have
ended shattering the strength of the holy people, all these will end.
So Hebrew scholars understand that to indicate a factor of 2-1/2. However they readily admit that their scriptures are silent on just what a "time" is.
Stratos wrote on Jan 7
th, 2014 at 2:01pm:
....... as that is far from a standard interpretation of that particular verse. I can see how you cold justify is to get to that figure, but you could use the same logic and get a multitude of different dates as the word translated to the word "time" is not specific.
That's exactly right. We could experiment with different lengths of time and with various understandings of the world "time". Now while those old covenant saints may be sovereignly blinded to the Gospel, you and I aren't. In the New Testament we find:
2 Peter 3:8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that
one day (that is, hemera) [is] with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
The Greek word that is translated as "day" in the above verse is "hemera". It is an ambiguous word, the definition of which, is determined by it's context.
In 3 other passages in the KJV it is translated as "
time" (in 12 verses in the NASB).
From Strong's:
New Testament Greek Definition:
2250 hemera {hay-mer'-ah}
from (with 5610 implied) of a derivative of hemai (to sit,
akin to the base of 1476) meaning tame, i.e. gentle;
TDNT - 2:943,309; n f
AV - day 355, daily + 2596 15,
time 3
, not tr 2, misc 14; 389
So
WHAT IF we
TRY understanding a "time" as a thousand years? What might we come up with?
If we look back to the beginning of the passage in Daniel we find:
Daniel 10:1
In the third year of Cyrus king of Persia a thing was revealed unto Daniel, whose name was called Belteshazzar; and the thing [was] true, but
the time appointed [was] long: and he understood the thing, and had understanding of the vision.
I think you and I would both agree that the typical "church" understanding of 3-1/2 years, would hardly qualify as a long appointed time, in prophecy. But what happens
IF we travel forward in time 2500 years from the "third year of Cyrus"?
Bible handbooks that were
published prior to 1948 pin the first year of Cyrus at 537-536 BC, making the third year of Cyrus 534-533 BC. So what happens
IF we consider 2500 years forward in time from 534-533 BC?
2500 -533 = 1967
1967 was the year of the six-day war which "ended shattering the strength of the holy people". Isn't that surprising? If you want to add a "zero year" start from the other side of the range at 534 BC.
Now look at the verse I posted earlier:
Daniel 12:4 But thou, O Daniel, shut up the words, and
seal the book, [even] to the time of the end: many shall run to and fro, and knowledge shall be increased.
From the math problem we can see that NOBODY could have done other than scratch their heads over the math, UNTIL after 1967 had come to pass, and we could see the problem in HINDSIGHT. So it seems the seal on the book of Daniel wasn't opened by a guy named John Nelson Darby (the "father" of futurism), or Jesuit Francisco Ribera (credited with preterism in the modern "church"), so no man could take credit. Rather the seal on the book of Daniel was opened through the simple passage of time, and fulfillment of prophecy in HINDSIGHT! Isn't that a wonderful and amazing prophecy?
Reformers like Matthew Henry and Isaac Newton looked upon the times in their future - upon the times in which we live - with what would seem no small measure of envy:
http://www.christianeschatology.com/historicism.htm#reformers_time_of_endMatthew Henry: "VI. That this prophecy of those times, though sealed up now, would be of great use to those that should live then, v. 4. Daniel must now shut up the words and seal the book.....
He must seal the book because it would not be understood, and therefore would not be regarded, till the things contained in it were accomplished.....
Those things of God which are now dark and obscure will hereafter be made clear, and easy to be understood. Truth is the daughter of time. Scripture prophecies will be expounded by the accomplishment of them; therefore they are given, and for that explication they are reserved."
Isaac Newton: ".....these Prophecies of Daniel and John should not be understood till the time of the end: .... But in the very end, the Prophecy should be so far interpreted as to convince many.
Isn't that wonder full?! And it required the NT to understand the OT:
Eze 37:19 Say unto them, Thus saith the Lord GOD; Behold, I will take the stick of Joseph, which is in the hand of Ephraim, and the tribes of Israel his fellows, and will put them with him, even with the stick of Judah, and make them one stick, and they shall be one in mine hand.