freediver wrote on Dec 16^th, 2016 at 7:20pm:



There is a tavern down the road, 1/2 a kilometre, ford the creek, then turn left, about 1 km on, then over a low hill, take the next left, and you can't miss it, its at the next turn in the road.

Its a long and windy road,       .....to get where we are going!

freediver wrote on Dec 16^th, 2016 at 7:20pm:


no.

freediver wrote on Dec 17^th, 2016 at 1:21pm:


Here's the second. Question number 2.

freediver wrote on Dec 17^th, 2016 at 1:21pm:


FD I've already explained - I interpret categorising the entire muslim population as mentally retarded, psychopathic inbreds as describing muslims as a separate human sub-species. It also "racialises" muslims. Clearly you think that is wrong. How about we agree to disagree and move on hmmm?

Do you think calling moses' statement "racist" instead of "bigoted hate-speech towards an entire ethno-religious group" is unfair?

Not going to answer? Well can you at least answer me this - is moses' hate speech (you do recognised it has hate speech surely??) - any less inflamatory or condemnable than whatever you consider to be actual "racism"?

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Is that another way of saying you made it up? Was he really referring to the entire Muslim population?

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If you still don't realise how you are wrong, I would like to dwell on this a bit more. I am particularly interested in your strategy of "re-interpreting" what people said after your first interpretation is shown to be incorrect. I would say that accusing Moses of racism is an interpretation. Accusing him of referring to Muslims as a sub species is just a lie, intended to back your false interpretation.

You also lied about none of your ancestors being inbred.

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I think it is a deliberate strategy by you to racialise criticism of Islam and reinforce the Islamic victimhood industry. It is unfair to your fellow Muslims and apologists. It is the soft bigotry of low expectations.

freediver wrote on Dec 17^th, 2016 at 10:11pm:


Looks like you've got your answer, G. FD was quick this time.

The answer is no. Calling a race inbred, subnormal and genetically inferior is not racist or bigoted, it's perfectly reasonable if they're Muslims. In fact, saying this is racist is unfair to your fellow Muslims and apologists. It's bigotry of the highest order.

Oh, G. How could you?

freediver wrote on Dec 17^th, 2016 at 10:11pm:


I'm so glad you brought that up FD, as it proves your fanstastically stupid logic can still get stupider.

Moses made a very specific reference to the entire population - 1.5 billion, read it again, I've posted it enough times. He then used that figure to "calculate" the number of men, who he went on to describe as 100% (750 million, read the quote) as intellectually retarded. That includes me, who isn't even of arab origin, who doesn't come from that favourite "genetic/caliphate map" of yours that you post at every opportunity.

So now I guess we can apply ingenious FD logic and point out he was only talking about half the muslim population and say "see! women are not included! - Its just a bit of sexism!" - right? Which would only "very stupid" (as opposed to 'about as stupid as you can get'), if you didn't stop to consider how inbreeding (hell, any breeding) occurs. That, shock horror, it involves men and women - and that if 100% of men were intellectually retarded (lets see you try and spin him not saying that lol), that would be impossible unless 100% of the women were also intellectually retarded.

So yes, Moses was referring to the entire muslim population when he referred to them  being a genetic sub-species as being intellectually retarded due to inbreeding

Because you rarely refer to what people said, FD, and you always make stuff up.

Do you deny this?