freediver wrote on Mar 27
th, 2022 at 2:08pm:
[quote author=AusbetterWorld link=1644481191/88#88 date=1647835731]
You are still missing the point. How can poverty have been erased in China, but remain entrenched in the west, if we are wealthier on average than the Chinese (by a huge margin) and have a more equal distribution of wealth? Do you realise that you make no sense?
I explained it before, but you apparently missed it (at best, could be other reasons), so I'll take it step by step this time:
1. c. 1 billion people (ie c.99% of the entire population) living in
absolute poverty in 1990 in China.
2. c. 10% of the entire population living in
relative poverty** in the US and OZ, in 1990. (**
relative poverty takes account of different costs of living in different nations).
3. Fast forward 30 years:
In China,
absolute poverty eradicated, and 50-60% living in
relative poverty; with a middle class of 400 million people, and expanding fast.
4. In the US and Oz, not much change from 1990. ie no improvement in the relative poverty figures; and indeed the middle class is being squeezed eg in the US, half the population are now living pay check to pay check whereas 30 years ago the the middle class was a large majority of the population.
Quote:Yes we know the CCP literally starved millions of Chinese to death not long ago,
60 years ago in fact....
Quote:but you are not comparing China today with China in the past.
Of course not, rapid increases in living standards in China only began after the Deng opening up of the economy, about 3 decades ago.
Quote:Of course not, now thtYou are comparing China with the west. Chinese people are not richer than westerners by virtue of being richer than their parents.
I am comparing Chinese rates of poverty eradication compared with the West's rates of poverty eradication, highlighted above.